| Proximity (within same group) |
|---|
|
Posted by: Thorsten W. on Jun. 6, 2014, 19:04
There ist something not so logical in results: Danish and Swedish are pretty similar, so should there respective distances to any other language be, but this is not the case. One example: Danish to French: 41, Swedish to French: 47 Why this?
|
|
Posted by: Vincent on Jun. 9, 2014, 22:55
Dear Thorsten. Thank you for this remark. The reason is that the results you get for the comparison of any pair of languages represents the distance between
the word sample used in the study. This sample is limited: there are only up to 18 words! So the results we get should not be interpreted too narrowly
it's about a direction, so I would say a difference of +/- 3 to 5 points can not be interpretet seriously.
Nevertheless, you will always get results in a 40 to 50 range when you compare any Germanic Language with Roman ones, so the overall direction is OK.
|
Forum » Proximity